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From: alderson@netcom13.netcom.com (Richard M. Alderson III)
Subject: Re: Y "wye"?  (Was: The Naming of Letters)
In-Reply-To: ljz@asfast.com's message of 26 Jul 1997 21:24:25 GMT
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Date: Sun, 27 Jul 1997 23:01:55 GMT
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In article <slrn5tkqfk.hd.ljz@ljz.asfast.net> ljz@asfast.com (Lloyd Zusman)
writes:

>1573 is long after the Great Vowel Shift, correct?  I'm asking because I want
>to get an idea how John Baret is likely to have pronounced something
>"compounded of u and i".

Actually, it's right in the middle of the GVS.  Tudor period English would have
sounded more to your ear like modern Dublin than like modern London.
-- 
Rich Alderson   You know the sort of thing that you can find in any dictionary
                of a strange language, and which so excites the amateur philo-
                logists, itching to derive one tongue from another that they
                know better: a word that is nearly the same in form and meaning
                as the corresponding word in English, or Latin, or Hebrew, or
                what not.
                                                --J. R. R. Tolkien,
alderson@netcom.com                               _The Notion Club Papers_
