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From: dww@hogpb.ho.att.com (-D.WILSON)
Subject: Re: Anglicizing non-English Name?
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References: <troyer-130395113125@tcrmac.mitre.org> <3k20me$fng@panix2.panix.com> <3k26h5$a31@agate.berkeley.edu>
Date: Tue, 14 Mar 1995 20:43:27 GMT
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In article <3k26h5$a31@agate.berkeley.edu>,
Coby (Jacob) Lubliner <coby@euler.Berkeley.EDU> wrote:
>In article <3k20me$fng@panix2.panix.com>, Pierre Jelenc 
>	<rcpj@panix.com> wrote:
>>In article <troyer-130395113125@tcrmac.mitre.org>,
>>Tom Royer <troyer@mitre.org> wrote:
>>>How come we don't use the Italian spelling and pronunciation?
>>
>>Why should we? We are speaking English, not Italian.
>
>It's still a legitimate question, and the answer goes back to the
>Middle Ages, when the international language for England was French
>(even after English had become official in England itself), so that
>the _French_ names (sometimes slightly anglicized, as Venice for
>Venise) of _important_ cities on the Continent (not only Italy) were
>used.....
>
>Coby

O.K., but how the heck did we ever get Leghorn for Livorno?

David Wilson

