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From: alderson@netcom.com (Richard M. Alderson III)
Subject: Re: lang without noun/verb distinction?
In-Reply-To: mol@marvin.df.lth.se's message of 8 Mar 1996 09:02:46 GMT
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Date: Fri, 8 Mar 1996 18:55:00 GMT
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In article <4hot3m$o28@news.lth.se> mol@marvin.df.lth.se (Magnus Olsson)
writes:

>When dealing wiht inflected languages, it's very convenient to be able to lump
>nouns, pronouncs and adjectives together, because they are inflected in
>similar ways and perform similar functions.

But is that necessarily the case?  Would you then not classify something as an
adjective in an inflected language if it behaved *syntactically* as do adjec-
tives in classical Indo-European languages but received the same morphological
markings as a verb?
-- 
Rich Alderson   You know the sort of thing that you can find in any dictionary
                of a strange language, and which so excites the amateur philo-
                logists, itching to derive one tongue from another that they
                know better: a word that is nearly the same in form and meaning
                as the corresponding word in English, or Latin, or Hebrew, or
                what not.
                                                --J. R. R. Tolkien,
alderson@netcom.com                               _The Notion Club Papers_
