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From: Peter Hullah <Peter.Hullah@eurocontrol.fr>
Subject: Re: Used to (Was "Re: You, Youse, ...All Y'all")
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Date: Thu, 15 Feb 1996 15:37:23 GMT
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Randall Kloko wrote:
> 
> That got me to thinking about such unconsciously made choices, and leads
> me to another question.  How widespread is the devoicing in "used to"
> and "have to"?  For example:
> 
>             "A rug-beater is _used to_ beat rugs."     [yu:zd tu:]
>        but  "I _used to_ beat rugs with a rug-beater." [yu:st tu:]
> leading to  "A rug-beater used to be used to beat rugs."
> 
> The rule seems to be, "Where 'used to' is used modally (='habitually')
> it's devoiced; where it replaces 'is employed to', it's voiced."

This is certainly the case in my version of RP. Perhaps this could be
related to the pronunciation of the verb "use" ('yu:z') as opposed to the 
noun "use" ('yu:s'). 

> 
>   Likewise: "I have to have two."  [hafta hav tu:]
> 
> Replacing the modal 'must', 'have to' becomes 'hafta'.

I might not necessarily pronounce the "to" as 'ta', but you're right about
the 'haf' and 'hav' parts. Unfortunately, most Brits would say
"I've got to have two" anyway!

> 
> Where else does this rule obtain?
> 
Is the use of the verb "obtain" to mean "apply" widespread? It's the first time
I've ever seen it.

Pete

-- 

Peter H.C. Hullah                     Technical Services
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