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From: elna@netcom.com (Esperanto League N America)
Subject: french in english 
Message-ID: <elnaE6LnDB.F2q@netcom.com>
Organization: Esperanto League for North America, Inc.
References: <853605030.2652@dejanews.com> <331D188E.711C@scruznet.com> <331fa3b2.1566372@news.mindspring.com> <01bc29ae$8685df60$LocalHost@pconielsby>
Date: Thu, 6 Mar 1997 02:10:23 GMT
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Sender: elna@netcom23.netcom.com

"Ole Nielsby" <onielsby@post4.tele.dk> writes in a recent posting (reference <01bc29ae$8685df60$LocalHost@pconielsby>):
>
>I am not quite sure what is meant by "suppine" (supinum?). An
>example might clarify. But generally, the use of "to" with infinitive
>verbs is the same in German (zu), Old Norse (at) and Danish (at,
>preposition = ad). No french cookies here.
>
Ich moechte gehen.     I want to go.
Ich muss essen.        I need to eat.

And the "to" cannot function like the German "zu" in the middle of
separable-prefix verbs.

I have always wondered about "have to" meaning "must".  Might it come from
French "avoir besoin de"?

J'ai besoin de manger.  ==>  I have need de eat.  ==>  I have to eat.

Just a theory....  Is there any evidence of English in 1067??
>
BTW Grady misspelled "supine". Czech it owt; luuk it up!

-- 
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