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From: deb5@ellis.uchicago.edu (Daniel von Brighoff)
Subject: Re: Scots and English (was: Re: Flemish and Dutch)
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References: <3nqtn1$b7v@bertha.gssec.bt.co.uk> <D8rGGz.5FM@midway.uchicago.edu> <3ph342$o3m@clarknet.clark.net> <D8uF69.1v9@rheged.dircon.co.uk>
Date: Sat, 20 May 1995 03:32:56 GMT
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In article <D8uF69.1v9@rheged.dircon.co.uk>,
Simon Brooke <simon@rheged.dircon.co.uk> wrote:
>In article <3ph342$o3m@clarknet.clark.net>,
>*Expletive Deleted*) thedavid@clark.net ( <> wrote:

>>Also I'm not quite sure if English can any longer be
>>classified as Germanic. Rather damn Latinate in it's
>>vocabulary, ain't it?
>
>It may be, but I don't think that worries the linguists, who are as
>much concerned about grammar and so on. In any case Scots uses far
>fewer latin loan words than English.

More specifically, lexicon; two languages can have identical or nearly
identical grammar (e.g. Korean and Japanese) and still not be considered
related.  Also, genetic affilition is not determined by synchronic
criteria:  even if only 2% of present English vocabulary were of 
Anglo-Saxon origin and every vestige of declension and conjugation had 
been purged, it would still be considered a 'Germanic' language because 
of its ultimate derivation from Proto-Germanic.  The only cases in which 
languages can be considered to have changed their genetic affiliation are 
creoles, and only some linguists claim this. 
-- 
	 Daniel "Da" von Brighoff    /\          Dilettanten
	(deb5@midway.uchicago.edu)  /__\         erhebt Euch
				   /____\      gegen die Kunst!
