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Article 1237 of comp.ai.philosophy:
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>From: rc@depsych.Gwinnett.COM (Richard Carlson)
Newsgroups: comp.ai.philosophy
Subject: Re: Is semiotics an "informal logic"?
Message-ID: <8sq2aB1w164w@depsych.Gwinnett.COM>
Date: 7 Nov 91 14:44:42 GMT
References: <91310.142252MORIARTY@NDSUVM1.BITNET>
Lines: 33

MORIARTY@NDSUVM1.BITNET writes:
> This much is clear: a shift of metaphor from system to system
> is always misleading.  The statement [x=y]/"semiotics" =
> "informal logic" is not productive.  The cultural units
> implied in the respective sememes cannot be identical because
> the respective fields of referential signifying chains are not
> identical.

 This amounts to a very precise way of saying that the two things,
semiotics within its continental tradition of dialectic and
phenomenology, and the Anglo-American "informal logics" folks here
were discussing, are unrelated.

> The possibility exists that a code stipulating the pathways
> between the two fields might be generated.  Any suggestions?

My motivation in subscribing to the sci.philosophy.tech newsgroup
was to get ideas on precisely that point.  My motivation in
subscribing to comp.ai.philosophy was to find out what was being
done in English and talked about here in America using the
semiotic paradigms.

Life is too short and I don't have time to learn the
Anglo-american jargon.  My interests are scientific rather than
philosophical in that I want to _use_ semiotics to make an
understanding of a patient's life script (I'm a clinical
psychologist by trade) which is a little more clinically useful.

--
Richard Carlson        |    rc@depsych.gwinnett.com
Midtown Medical Center |    gatech!emory!gwinnett!depsych!rc
Atlanta, Georgia       |
(404) 881-6877         |


