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From: rdd@usa1.com (Aaron J. Dinkin)
Subject: Re: Tendency of Inflections to Disappear - Why?
Message-ID: <rdd-0808962054360001@dmn1-46.usa1.com>
Date: Thu, 08 Aug 1996 20:54:36 -0500
References: <4suk93$pob@carrera.intergate.bc.ca> <DvFBv0.DL9@world.std.com> <4u7ud1$2k@dove.nist.gov> <4ubacb$43a@news.xs4all.nl> <4ucv9m$255@netsrv2.spss.com>
Lines: 28

In article <4ucv9m$255@netsrv2.spss.com>, markrose@spss.com (Mark
Rosenfelder) wrote:

> In article <4ubacb$43a@news.xs4all.nl>,
> Miguel Carrasquer Vidal <mcv@pi.net> wrote:
> >There is the passage in King Henry V, Act III, Scene III, where both
> >the c-word and the f-word are alluded to (albeit in French):
> >
> >Katharine: Ainsi dis-je; <de elbow>, <de nick>, et <de sin>.  Comment
> >appelez-vous le pied at la robe?
> >
> >Alice: <De foot>, madame; et <de coun>.
> >
> >Kath.: <De foot> et <de coun>!  O Seigneur Dieu!
> 
> The gown/con pun has always seemed a bit remote to me.  Is there any
> evidence that 'gown' was pronounced [goun] rather than [gaun] in those
> days, which would make the two words a tolerable rhyme?

"Gown" and similar words were on their way down from Middle English /gu:n/
to present-day /gaUn/; I believe in Shakespeare's time they were something
of the order of [gVUn]. If you're American (or probably anyone else, but
AmE is the only one I'm sure about), try saying "gout" and switching the
[t] to an [n] at the last instant before actually articulating it to get
what I mean.

-Aaron J. Dinkin
Dr. Whom

