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From: deb5@ellis.uchicago.edu (Daniel von Brighoff)
Subject: Re: International Language.
Message-ID: <1995Jan8.003137.4773@midway.uchicago.edu>
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References: <donhD1xxxp.KJ1@netcom.com> <1995Jan6.075328.17902@midway.uchicago.edu> <3ejt2e$duv@panix2.panix.com>
Date: Sun, 8 Jan 1995 00:31:37 GMT
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Xref: glinda.oz.cs.cmu.edu sci.lang.translation:511 sci.lang:34031

In article <3ejt2e$duv@panix2.panix.com> rcpj@panix.com (Pierre Jelenc) writes:
>In article <1995Jan6.075328.17902@midway.uchicago.edu>,
>Daniel von Brighoff <deb5@midway.uchicago.edu> wrote:
>>                                                  Zamenhof's linguistic
>>bias (feminine agent nouns should be derived from masculine agent nouns),
>>which is derived from an older European cultural bias (women are subordi-
>^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^
>>nate to men), would then have been turned into a cultural bias again
>
>How do you know? At most, it is a correlation in a single example, hardly
>the stuff from which one can draw conclusions. 

In every European language of my acquaintance, specifically feminine
agent nouns are derived from the masculine agent noun.  How is this
"correlation in a single example"?  Also, I think it's really sufficiently
clear that European cultures have not even striven for equality of the
sexes until recently and that this fact is reflected in their languages.

-- 
	Daniel "Da" von Brighoff (deb5@midway.uchicago.edu)  /\
	5242 S. Hyde Park Blvd., Apt. 303		    /__\
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