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From: mcv@inter.NL.net
Subject: Re: Arabic dots
Message-ID: <CyC6Io.6Kp@inter.NL.net>
Organization: NLnet
References: <38katk$1gj@mother.usf.edu> <aldersonCyAJ7n.BJI@netcom.com>
Date: Thu, 27 Oct 1994 14:49:36 GMT
Lines: 42

In article <aldersonCyAJ7n.BJI@netcom.com>,
Richard M. Alderson III <alderson@netcom.com> wrote:
>In article <38katk$1gj@mother.usf.edu> millert@grad.csee.usf.edu
>(Timothy Miller) writes:
>
>[Regarding the Arabic writing system:]
>
>>And how are b, t, and th related such that they would have the same symbol
>>with different numbers of dots? 
>
>Well, in the Latin alphabet, how are p, b, d, and q related such that they are
>the same except for orientation?
>
>Answer:  They aren't, except through the exigencies of history.  Or, "it's
>conincidence."

True for b t (and the initial/middle forms of n and y), not for [T].
The original Semitic script had no values for the following Arabic
sounds:
[T] [D] [d~] [D~] [x] [G], so they were represented using:

t-dot, d-dot, s~-dot, t~-dot, H-dot, `-dot

Of the original Semitic signs, the following had become
indistinguishable in the handwriting, thus necessitating 
dots:

b - t - n - y  (n and y: initial/middle only)
g (=j) - H
r - z
p (=f) - q  (initial/middle only)

Sin/shin is I believe a special case.  Hebrew also distinguishes
the two using dots.  The original letter for s (samek) is not
used anymore in Arabic.  This is complicated by (due to?) the fact 
that Arabic has "s" where West-Semitic has "sh" (and vice-versa?),
e.g. "shalom" and "salaam".

-- 
Miguel Carrasquer         ____________________  ~~~
Amsterdam                [                  ||]~  
mcv@inter.NL.net         ce .sig n'est pas une .cig 
