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From: mcv@inter.NL.net (Miguel Carrasquer)
Subject: Re: difference between c and z in Spanish
Message-ID: <Cxx63x.HEK@inter.NL.net>
Organization: NLnet
References: <3823mg$obr@cville-srv.wam.umd.edu>
Date: Wed, 19 Oct 1994 12:16:45 GMT
Lines: 35

In article <3823mg$obr@cville-srv.wam.umd.edu>,
Hung Jung Lu <hlu@wam.umd.edu> wrote:
>Yes, in Castillan, za ce ci zo zu are pronounced with
>an apico-dental fricative consonant. However, I was once
>told by a Castillan girl that there was a subtle difference
>between the z sound and the c sound. However, since
>orthographically one does not find ze zi nor c,a c,o c,u
>in Spanish, it was impossible to find an example where
>she could tell me the difference. And I really couldn't
>hear the difference when she said za ce ci zo zu. But
>she insisted that the difference was there, and another
>Spanish guy in the scene agreed with her.
>
>To the Castillan experts: is it really true that there
>is a difference between the c and z sounds? How do they
>differ, in technical terms?
>

It's just another example of how spelling influences
people's thoughts on pronunciation.  Of course there's
no difference at all...  I'm sure there will be people
claiming that "b" and "v" also sound subtly different
in Castilian.  Not true, except maybe in some northern
dialects.  Dutch people will tell you that they pronounce
final -d differently from final -t (they both sound [t]),
etc.  Sometimes spelling wins from etymology, and you get
"spelling pronunciations".  If I remember correctly,
English "oi/oy" should have sounded the same as "ai/ay",
but the modern pronunciation [oi] was re-introduced as
a result of spelling.

-- 
Miguel Carrasquer         ____________________  ~~~
Amsterdam                [                  ||]~  
mcv@inter.NL.net         ce .sig n'est pas une .cig 
