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From: rharmsen@knoware.nl (Ruud Harmsen)
Subject: Re: Lunatic orthography (was Re: Esperanto as a stepping stone?
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In article <D2Ctqt.K3M@spss.com> markrose@spss.com (Mark Rosenfelder) writes:
>From: markrose@spss.com (Mark Rosenfelder)
>Subject: Re: Lunatic orthography (was Re: Esperanto as a stepping stone?
>Date: Fri, 13 Jan 1995 17:25:40 GMT

>>Did I? My intention was to use "th" AND "dh" for these two sounds. Where did 
I >>write a "dh" for what is spoken as "th"? (sorry if I overlooked),

>Cf. "a not-too-sharp brake widh dha past"; if you meant to use "th" for 
>unvoiced /T/, that should have been "with dha past".

Well, my "Concise Oxford Dictionary" says "with" has the dh sound, and being 
a non-native speaker I have to follow some reference for my personal style 
of pronounciation. And Daniel Jones in "The pronounciation of English" (from 
1956, but I suppose newer editions exist), says it is dh, but some Scots use 
th instead. Perhaps this is (now?) also the case in the US?

It's also interesting whether "with"  in the context "with the" is pronounced 
differently than in other contexts: There could be a tendency to say "with 
dha" to stress that there are really two different sounds involved, or the too 
(especially if the first might be also dh) could be merged into one? 
Perhaps _I_ am inclined to say "widha" or "widhdha", to avoid the defective 
Dutch-accent pronounciation as "wizda"?
A possible variant could also be to say two sounds, both voiced, but the first 
a little more fricative and the second more plosive?

