Newsgroups: sci.lang
From: andre@shappski.demon.co.uk (Andre Shapps)
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Subject: Re: The logic of "and" and "but"
References: <600434857wnr@shappski.demon.co.uk> <3il3p5$ov2@ss1.cam.nist.gov> <793758683snz@storcomp.demon.co.uk>
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Date: Mon, 27 Feb 1995 15:42:16 +0000
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In article: <793758683snz@storcomp.demon.co.uk>  philip@storcomp.demon.co.uk > 
I would imagine that *every* language has a way of marking unexpectedness,
> as it seems fundamental to how humans communicate. If anyone has a
> counterexample, I would be very interested.

I never meant to imply that to have separate words to mean "and" and "but" 
were unnecessary, merely to query whether they are logically distinct. I also 
assumed that every language did make the distinction in some way, but last 
night I happened to talk to someone who is studying Hebrew, who said that 
originally Hebrew didn't have separate words. Does anyone know about this? Was 
there some other mechanism for making the distinction?
-- 
Andre Shapps

