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Article 5909 of comp.ai.philosophy:
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>From: sarima@tdatirv.UUCP (Stanley Friesen)
Newsgroups: comp.ai.philosophy
Subject: Re: Comments on Searle - What could causal powers be?
Message-ID: <30@tdatirv.UUCP>
Date: 25 May 92 14:47:11 GMT
References: <1992May13.001033.14320@ccu.umanitoba.ca> <1992May14.164117.25016@psych.toronto.edu> <6885@pkmab.se> <1992May20.204424.21125@psych.toronto.edu>
Reply-To: sarima@tdatirv.UUCP (Stanley Friesen)
Organization: Teradata Corp., Irvine
Lines: 20

In article <1992May20.204424.21125@psych.toronto.edu> michael@psych.toronto.edu (Michael Gemar) writes:
|
|Sorry, Kristoffer!  As I noted in a few more recent postings, the choice
|of the word "inherent" was a poor one on my part.  The notion I am trying
|to convey is that the symbols that *I* use have meaning *for me*.  I
|*know* they have meaning, since I am the one who assigns it.

Yes but what is this 'I' thing, why should I believe that its outputs
and internal states are any different in origin than those of a
computer?  In fact can you prove to me you are *not* a computer.

Thus, just because you model yourself as attaching a meaning to your
own words, does this prove anything?  How does this make the symbols
you use any different than they would be if you did not make this
claim?
-- 
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sarima@teradata.com				(Stanley Friesen)
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uunet!tdatirv!sarima


